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What Wrath?
For not even the Father judges anyone, but He has given all judgment to the Son, so that all will honor the Son even as they honor the Father. He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him. – John 5:22-23
Is this a problem for the young, reformed and reckless? Hmm.
It is popular to say these days that, upon the cross of Jesus Christ, “the wrath of the Father that should have fallen on you and I, fell on the head of Jesus Christ” as an act of judgment against our sin. It was “poured out upon Christ by the Father.”
Now, suppose a theological student came to you and said there was no evidence of that, no scriptural proof, that the concept itself was impossible, and he goes on as evidence to quote John 5:22, 23 quoted above.
Suppose he reasons to you that since Scripture declares all judgment was given to the Son prior to the cross, it is impossible that the Son poured out the wrath of the Father upon Himself, as the Father.
How would you answer?
5 Pt. Salt 
at brought our peace was on him; and by his wounds we are healed.
6 All we like sheep have gone astray; everyone has turned to his own way; and Yahweh has laid on him the iniquity of us all.
7 He was oppressed, yet when he was afflicted he didn’t open his mouth; as a lamb that is led to the slaughter, and as a sheep that before its shearers is mute, so he didn’t open his mouth.
8 By oppression and judgment he was taken away; and as for his generation, who among them considered that he was cut off out of the land of the living for the disobedience of my people to whom the stroke was due?
9 They made his grave with the wicked, and with a rich man in his death; although he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth.
10 Yet it pleased Yahweh to bruise him; he has put him to grief: when you shall make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of Yahweh shall prosper in his hand.
11 He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by the knowledge of himself shall my righteous servant justify many; and he shall bear their iniquities.”
along with other substitutionary texts which state that Jesus is the “propitiation” (satisfies the wrath of God) for those he died for and that he was “made sin for us” 2 Cor. 5:21, and show his sacrificial work as being a payment for sin unto the Father thus satisfying his judgment as in Hebrews 10. etc.
And then I would point out that John 5 is speaking of the future judgment (as is v.28,29) to come upon those for whom such a substitutionary payment/wrath poured out upon the Son, provision was not made through his death.
P.S. This also makes an additional case for a particular redemption.
Would not this verse work: “For in him all the fullness of God was pleased to dwell, and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether on earth or in heaven, making peace by the blood of his cross.” or possibly this one: “And they made his grave with the wicked and with a rich man in his death, although he had done no violence, and there was no deceit in his mouth. Yet it was the will of the Lord to crush him; he has put him to grief; when his soul makes an offering for guilt, he shall see his offspring; he shall prolong his days; the will of the Lord shall prosper in his hand. Out of the anguish of his soul he shall see and be satisfied; by his knowledge shall the righteous one, my servant, make many to be accounted righteous, and he shall bear their iniquities.” But those are just a few verses that come to mind…I would go into greater detail, but I think your situational argument has been solved.